For UPCD May 2011 Dental Boards Review Students ONLY Part 1

HI! SORRY FOR THE DELAY. HERE ARE THE ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS FOR SETS 1 TO 5. WILL POST CONTINUATION TOMORROW. SETS 6 TO 9 ARE IN PART 2. PARA SA MGA “BAGITO” SA INTERNET, YOU CAN COPY THE ENTIRE POST BY PRESSING [CONTROL + A] TO SELECT THE ENTIRE POST THEN PRESS [CONTROL +C] TO COPY, THEN PASTE IN MICROSOFT WORD SO YOU CAN PRINT OR SAVE OR READ IT WHILE OFFLINE. – DOC T

PS. I WILL DELETE THIS POST ON MAY 1, 2011. GOOD LUCK!!!

SET 1 

1. D – (ORAL PHYSIO) undifferentiated (mesenchymal) cells help in repair and regeneration of odontoblasts and other cells in the dentin-pulp complex
2. C – (ORAL ANAT)
3. B – (ORAL ANAT)
4. D – (GEN PHYSIO) A nice animation explaining how sodium-potassium pump works is posted here: Sodium Potassium Pump Animation
5. B (ORAL ANAT)
6. D (GEN PHYSIO) – core body temperature is regulated by the thermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus (Tortora and Grabowski, 2002)
7. A (GEN PHYSIO)
8. C (ORAL PHYSIO) – - the food bolus passes through the larynx during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing but it does not have a direct action or involvement.
9. C (ORAL ANAT) – the disc separates the space between the glenoid fossa and the condyle into an upper and lower synovial cavities. B is wrong since the TMJ is a diarthrodial joint (First Aid for the NBDE Part 1)
10. B (ORAL PHYSIO) – This is a characteristic of γ-Amylase. Alpha amylase breaks down long-chain carbohydrates and acts on α(1,4) glycosidic linkages
11. C (ORAL ANAT) – Remember the mnemonic about structures passing through the Foramen oval? LAME (Lesser petrosal nerve, Accessory meningeal artery, mandibular nerve and emissary veins)
12. A (ORAL ANAT) – The tensor veli palatini wraps around a small hook-like extension of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone, known as the pterygoid hamulus. (Kaplan QBank)
13. D (ORAL ANAT) – First, knowing the location of the temporal bone makes this an obvious answer. Seven bones make up the orbit: frontal, lacrimal, ethmoid, zygomatic, maxillary, palatine and sphenoid. (Thieme Atlas of Anatomy: head and neuroanatomy)
14. C (ORAL ANAT)
15. C (GEN PHYSIO)
16. D (ORAL PHYSIO) Saying “la” requires the tongue to be placed against the roof of the mouth, which cannot be accomplished if the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is nonfunctional. CN XII innervates the intrinsic muscles of the tongue. (Kaplan QBank)
17. D (ORAL ANAT)
18. D (ORAL PHYSIO) – Lingual lipase is secreted by the glands in the base of the tongue
19. A (ORAL ANAT)
20. C (ORAL ANAT)
21. D (GEN ANAT) – The modified cardiac muscle fibers pertain to Purkinje fibers
22. A (ORAL PHYSIO) – The working side is defined as the side to which the mandible moves in an excursive movement. In an excursive movement of the mandible to the patient’s left side, both the maxillary & mandibular left side are the “working side” while the right side is considered the “non-working side.” (First Aid Q&A for the NBDE Part 1)
23. C (ORAL PHYSIO) – The function of this muscle is to pull the tongue back (retract) & upward towards the palate.
24. D ( GEN PHYSIO) – The products of the adrenal medulla are epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine (noradrenalin). The pathway of production of these compunds is a s follows: tyrosine to DOPA to dopamine to norepinephrine to epinephrine.
25. C (ORAL ANAT) -
26. C (ORAL ANAT)
27. D (ORAL ANAT) – a mucous gland
28. D (ORAL ANAT) – lingual cusp tip is obviously lingual to the buccal cusp tip. The mesial inclination will be seen in an occlusal view of the said tooth.
29. A (ORAL ANAT) – The hamulus is NOT directly involved in attachment and movement of the tongue. (First Aid Q&A for the NBDE Part 1)
30. C (GEN ANAT) – The trachea extends inferiorly in the superior mediastinum & bifurcates (marked by the rain) into the R & L main stem bronchi. Main stem bronchi then divide into lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi bronchioles then alveoli (First Aid Q&A)
31. C (ORAL ANAT)
32. D (ORAL ANAT)
33. D (ORAL ANAT) – when viewing from the incisal, the lateral incisor’s crown seemed to be twisted from its root.
34. D (ORAL PHYSIO) – First, eliminated A & B sinks there is no anterior & posterior compartment of the TMJ–upper and lower or superior/inferior compartment lang. Superior compartment – acts as a cushion as the condyle slides forward. When rotating around an axis during opening, the condyle slides against the lower surface of the disc which conforms to the shape of the condylar head.
35. B (ORAL ANAT)
36. B (ORAL ANAT) – Neonatal line is used to identify enamel formation before and after birth. Development & calcification of third molars begin after birth.
37. C (ORAL PHYSIO) – What happened is that the condyle has moved forward, past the eminence and past the bulk of the tubercle. To return the condyle to normal position, you need a downward force to position the condyle once again below the tubercle and eminence. You need the downward force to counteract the elevating forces of the medial pterygoid, masseter and temporalis.
38. D (ORAL ANAT)
39. B (ORAL ANAT)
40. A (ORAL PHYSIO)
41. A (GEN ANAT)
42. D (ORAL PHYSIO) – As you move from centric occlusion to edge-to-edge position, the mandibular teeth separate from the maxillary and a space is created between the two arches. Try this yourself, as you protrude and slide the mandible forward. The anterior teeth act as a guide as you slowly separate from occlusal contact until only incisal edges of incisors contact. At this point, the increased space between the arches adds to vertical dimension. There is no vertical overlap or overbite nor is there any horizontal overlap at this point. So protrusion to edge-to-edge increases vertical dimension while decreasing both vertical and horizontal overlap.
43. B (ORAL PHYSIO) – ligaments define the border movements of the mandible. They do not assist in movement.
44. D (ORAL ANAT)
45. D (ORAL ANAT)
46. A (GEN PHYSIO) – The increase in muscle blood flow that occurs during exercise is caused by dilation of the arterioles (i.e., decreased arteriolar resistance) attributed to the dilatory actions of metabolic factors (e.g., adenosine, lactic acid, carbon dioxide) produced by the exercising muscles. In normal skeletal muscles, the blood flow can increase as much as 20-fold during strenuous exercise. (Kaplan QBANK)
47. C (ORAL PHYSIO) – Cementum thickness can increase on the root end to compensate for attritional wear of the occlusal/incisal surface and passive eruption of the tooth.
48. B (ORAL ANAT) – When a person with an erect posture makes no conscious effort to open or close the mouth and the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, there is a space between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth called freeway space
49. D (ORAL ANAT)
50. B (ORAL ANAT) – depresses or lowers the mandible
51. C (GEN PHYSIO) – Rigor mortis means “rigidity of death” which begins 3-4 hours after death & lasts about 24 hours. (Tortora & Graboski)
52. D (ORAL ANAT) – for every tooth there is a facial, lingual, cervical & incisal embrasures.
53. D (ORAL ANAT)
54. B (ORAL PHYSIO)
55. B (ORAL ANAT) – To answer this question, we have to trace the nerve pathway that supplies the tongue. Taste fibers leave the tongue via the chorda tympani, which travels with the lingual nerve through the petrotym- panic fissure and into the infratemporal fossa, and synapses with the geniculate ganglion. (Tortora & Graboswki)
56. B (GEN ANAT)
57. C (ORAL ANAT)
58. A (ORAL ANAT) – I think I mentioned this in the Oral Anatomy Q&A lecture. The lateral pterygoid is the only muscular component in the TMJ.
59. A (ORAL ANAT)
60. A (ORAL PHYSIO) – Normal salivary secretion is controlled by parasympathetic stimulation. But under stress, it is dominated by the sympathetic stimulation which results to dryness of the mouth.
61. D (ORAL ANAT) – Remember the Rules on Maxillary Holding Cusps? The Li cusps (Holding) of the Mx posteriors occlude on the DMR of its Md counterpart plus the MMR of the tooth distal to its counterpart. EXCEPTION:ML cusps of molars which occlude in the central fossae of their counterparts in the Md arch.
62. A (GEN ANAT) – the Circle of Willis is the cerebral arterial circle at the base of the brain. It is composed of 5 arteries namely: anterior cerebral, anterior communicating, internal carotid, posterior communicating & posterior cerebral.
63. D (ORAL PHYSIO) – The upper 2/3 of the esophagus contains striated muscle. It is derived from the pharyngeal arches and innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). The lower 1/3 contains smooth muscle from splanchnic mesoderm and is innervated by the splanchnic plexus.(Kaplan QBank)
64. A (GEN ANAT)
65. A (ORAL PHYSIO) – The salpingopharyngeus elevates the nasopharynx and opens the auditory tube. It is generally not involved in swallowing.
66. C (ORAL ANAT)
67. C (ORAL PHYSIO)
68. B (ORAL ANAT)
69. C (ORAL ANAT)
70. B (ORAL PHYSIO

SET 2

1. D – Mandibular second and third molar infections may travel down fascial planes into the neck. Since three of these fascial planes form the visceral compartment which opens into the thorax, dental infections can on occasion even enter the superior mediastinum of the thorax. The superior mediastinum contains many crucial structures, including the aortic arch, the superior vena cava. the vagus and phrenic nerves, and many other structures. Of the other answer choices, note that maxillary teeth are not likely to lead to cervical fascial planes and that mandibular incisors and canines. being in the same general anatomic area, are not therefore likely to be the correct answers.
2. A – Valves of kerckring or “plicae circulares “ are transverse folds covered w/ villi, usually in the mucosa of the small intestines (jejunum)
3. E – DBI is also known as “enostosis” and is seen in the premolar/ molar region of the mandible. Margins are well-defined but the shape is irregular, with no radioluscent margin. A – false since DBI has a uniform radio-opacity. B – false since DBI is entirely within the normal boundaries of the jaw. C – false, DBI typically forms close to the roots of the teeth and is frequently joined to the lamina dura. However, vitality of the teeth is irrelevant.
4. D – Odontogenic keratocysts contain keratotic squames and oily material, imparting a creamy white semi-fluid texture.
5. D
6. A – Nasopalatine duct cysts may be lined by respiratory or stratified squamous epithelium—reflecting the oral/nasal cavity origin.
7. D – The disease described is osteopetrosis (Albers-Schonberg disease), which is a group of hereditary diseases in which impaired osteoclast function leads to reduced bone resorption. The abnormal osteoclasts frequently are enlarged, with bizarre shapes. The bones become thick and brittle; other features include anemia secondary to marrow loss and cranial nerve deficits secondary to narrowing of bony ostea.
8. B – Let’s discuss the other answers as well:  A is falses since Nikolsky’s sign is found in pemphigus, some forms of mucous membrane pemphigoid and other vesiculo-bullous dermatoses. C is false since sensitive detection systems are required to detect circulating antibodies in MMP. D is false too since perilesional mucosa is required for direct immunofluorescence and tissue must be snap-frozen or submitted to the laboratory in special transport medium.
9. B
10. A – This is a description of Patau’s syndrome or trisomy 13. This disorder is also associated with severe mental retardation, abnormal forebrain structures, and death within 1 year of birth. Patau’s syndrome has an incidence of 1:6,000 births, making it the second most common form of autosomal trisomy. Trisomy 18 (choice B) is Edwards syndrome, characterized by severe mental retardation, rocker bottom feet (also sometimes seen in Patau’s syndrome), low-set ears, micrognathia, clenched hands, prominent occiput, and death within 1 year. Edwards syndrome has an incidence of 1:8,000, making it the third most common autosomal trisomy. Trisomy 21 (choice C) is Down syndrome, and is characterized by mental retardation, flat facial profile, prominent epicanthal folds, simian crease, duodenal atresia, and congenital heart disease. Down syndrome is the most common autosomal trisomy, with an incidence of 1:700. Klinefelter’s syndrome is associate with male hypogonadism and infertility, eunuchoid body habitus, gynecomastia, and lack of male secondary sexual characteristics.
11. B – Neuromuscular development is sufficient to allow fetal movement in the eighth week of life. Other features of Week 8 include the first appearance of a thin skin, a head as large as the rest of the body, forward-looking eyes, appearance of digits on the hands and feet, appearance of testes and ovaries (but not distinguishable external genitalia), and a crown-rump length of approximately 30 mm. By the end of the eighth week, nearly all adult structures have at least begun to develop, and the fetus “looks like a baby.”
12. D – All of the above are causes of community-acquired pneumonia but D is the most common cause. C – associated with community-acquired pneumonia in elderly patients
13. D – Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a rare disorder found in 1:7,000 children.
14. C – Oral lesions may be the initial manifestation of this type of leukemia (i.e. gingivitis, gingival hemorrhage, hyperplasia, ulcerations)
15. D – The most common site of oral traumatic neuroma is over the mental foramen in edentulous mouths. However, they may occur wherever a tooth has been removed
16. A – Mantle dentin is located adjacent to the enamel (DEJ area) or cementum (CEJ). The remaining dentin is called circumpulpal dentin. B – aka intratubular dentin, lies within the dentinal tubule. C – surrounds the intratubular dentin. D – imperfectly calcified matrix of dentin situated between the calcified globules near the periphery of dentin.
17. D
18. A – Acute gastritis, characterized by patches of erythematous mucosa, sometimes with petechiae and ulceration, can be seen as a complication of a variety of other conditions (alcohol use, aspirin and other NSAIDs use, smoking, shock, steroid use, and uremia), which usually have in common disruption of the mucosal barrier of the stomach
19. C
20. C
21. C – The causative organism of tetanus is Clostridium tetani, which is a gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic rod.
22. A
23. B – Other terms for fibroma are “irritation fibroma” and “traumatic fibroma.” Common sites are the buccal mucosa, lateral border of the tongue and lower lip
24. B – Sharpey’s fiber project into the cementum between groups of cementoblasts, and lie perpendicular to the surface of the cementum.
25. D – The difficulty with developing a vaccine against influenza A arises because the influenza virus genome is composed of eight strands of single-stranded RNA. Minor shifts (antigenic drift) in surface antigens that occur as point mutations in the genes accumulate. Influenza A can also undergo larger, abrupt changes in antigen expression (antigenic shift), however, as a consequence of reassortment of some of the RNA fragments between human and nonhuman hosts. Thus, last year’s vaccine does not necessarily work against this year’s virus.
26. C – Enamel spindles are formed from odontoblastic processes which project into the enamel and probably originally projected into the ameloblast layer. They are at right angles to the DEJ and may be responsible for sensitivity shown by patients as excavation nears the DEJ.
27. D – Connective tissue papillae extend into the gingiva to a much greater degree than they do into the alveolar mucosa. Rete pegs which are epithelial extensions into the submucosal tissue are also more prominent in gingival tissue than in alveolar mucosa.
28. C – The widening is caused by thickening of the periodontal membrane as a result of the increase in size and number of the collagen fibers. This creates a space which is almost uniform in width, surrounding the entire root of the tooth and makes it appear that the tooth was extruded from its socket.
29. D – The tuberculin reaction is an example of delayed-type hypersensitivity (a form of Type IV hypersensitivity) in which the bulk of the tissue damage is done by macrophages that are stimulated by a few previously sensitized CD4+ memory T-cells recognizing antigens presented by the macrophages.
30. B
31. C – Osteomyelitis is usually caused by bacteria (staphylococci) introduced by trauma or surgery extension from a nearby infection, or via the bloodstream. A – congenital disease that prevents formation of bone marrow and results in abnormal bone development, blindness, stunted growth, fragile bones, etc. Aka Albers-Schonberg syndrome and marble bone disease. B – reduction of total skeletal mass due to increased bone resorption which results to predisposition to pathologic fractures. D – death of bone.
32. B – Condensing osteitis usually occur in the mandibular first molar.
33. C – Salmonella spp., including S. enteriditis and S. typhimurium, produce a gastroenteritis or enterocolitis. Patients with decreased gastric acidity, sickle cell disease, or defects in immunity, and children younger than 4 years of age have a more severe course of disease.
34. C
35. B
36. C – Striated (skeletal) muscle not under voluntary control is an unusual feature of the upper and middle thirds of the esophagus. The middle third of the esophagus contains roughly half striated and half smooth muscle; the lower third contains only smooth muscle. All the other structures listed in the answer choices contain smooth muscle
37. A – When demineralized sections of teeth are made, the mineral is removed and the organic matrix remains. Enamel, being approximately 95% mineral and approximately 4% water, will leave behind very little structure when demineralized and so will appear empty and clear to light.
38. C – Protection against Hepatitis B usually occurs with HbsAg antibody levels greater than 100 mlU/ml.
39. C
40. A – Just remember that the nasal cavity is divided into 3 structurally & functionally different parts. 1) Vestibules (first 1.5cm from the nostrils) are lined w/ keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; 2) respiratory region – lining becomes pseudostratified columnar ciliated (this epithelium is aka respiratory epithelium), contains goblet cells; and 3) olfactory region (olfactory epithelium).
41. B
42. A – In decreasing order: Neutrophils-Lymphocytes-Monocytes-Eosinophils-Basophils. Remember the mnemonics “Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas” to help you memorize the order of WBCs in decreasing order.
43. A – Osteomalacia means softening of bones since the osteoid tissue failed to calcify due to Vit D deficiency.
44. A
45. D – Serous demilunes are serous cells at the distal end of a mucous tubuloalveolar secretory unit of certain glands (submd & sublingual). They cannot be seen in parotid glands since this gland is purely serous.
46. B – not involved in tongue formation. The macula can be found in the inner ear, in the retina and in the kidney, but it is not involved in tongue formation.
47. D – In Ludwig’s angina, the 3 facial spaces are involved bilaterally
48. D
49. D – The dentino-enamel junction first forms as ameloblasts and odontoblasts begin to lay down enamel and dentin, respectively. The DEJ remains in the formed tooth and it is the first structure formed which remains in the formed tooth.
50. C – TNM: T – size of primary tumor, N – presence of regional lymph node involvement, M – presence of distant metastases
51. D – The phrase “mosaic pattern” of newly formed woven bone is specific for Paget disease of bone and is not seen in other bone conditions.
52. C – If the question asks for the most common “intraoral” site of SCCA, the answer should be tongue (lateral border and ventral surface), second most common intraoral site is the floor of the mouth.
53. B – Ehler’s-Danlos syndrome is a hereditary connective tissue disorder that causes hyperelasticity of the skin and fragile oral tissues.
54. C
55. C – Patients typically present with the acute onset of arthritis (usually asymmetric and additive), with involvement of new joints occurring over a period of a few days to 2 weeks. Joints of the lower extremities are the most commonly involved, but wrists and fingers can also be affected. Dactylitis (sausage digit), a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe, is a distinctive feature of Reiter’s arthritis and psoriatic arthritis. Tendonitis and fasciitis are common, as are spinal pain and low back pain. Oligoarthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis, and mouth ulcers are the most common features.
56. B – Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by antibodies directed toward antigens that are present on the surface of cells or other tissue components. The antigen may be intrinsic to the cell membrane or may take the form of an exogenous antigen that is adsorbed to the cell surface. The situation described is Grave’s disease, which is an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism produced by autoantibodies directed against the TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) receptor. These antibodies are called LATS (long-acting thyroid stimulator) and stimulate thyroid function, resulting in the release of thyroid hormones. A & D – Type I Hypersensitivity (Certain allergens, especially drugs, insect venoms, latex, and foods may induce a type I IgE antibody response.); C – Type IV.
57. D – After full formation of enamel, the inner and outer enamel epithelium meet to form the cervical loop, the tip of which becomes Hertwig’s root sheath. The Hertwig root sheath will cause root formation through induction of the cells of the dental papilla to become odontoblasts. As the cervical loop forms inpockets or ingrowths, various numbers of roots will form.
58. B – Turner’s tooth or Turner’s hypoplasia is an enamel defect seen in permanent teeth caused by inflammation or trauma in the overlying primary tooth. This causes discoloration to the tooth crown that varies from white, yellow or brown.
59. A – Herpes zoster’s symptoms are usually unilateral unless in cases where the patient is immunocompromised.
60. B – The viral particles or virions contain either RNA or DNA that is encased in a protein coat called capsid. A – consists solely of a single molecule or circular RNA without a protein coat or envelope. They cause several diseases in plants but has nothing to do with humans. C – infectious protein particles that are composed solely of protein. D – obvious
61. D – Take note of the difference between abscess and cellulitis. Abscess is a localized, purulent type of infection. A cellulitis, in contrast is a diffuse, spreading type of inflammation. Early symptoms of pericoronitis are pain and swelling localized to the operculum over the crown of the tooth. In severe cases, the patient may complain of limitation of mouth opening and facial swelling. Spread of infection may occur to deeper tissues.
62. B – the mandible is principally formed by intramembranous ossification while the condyle is formed by secondary cartilage.
63. A
64. D – Secondary dentin can be found just interior to primary dentin, narrowing and enclosing the pulpal tissue. When primary dentin borders on secondary dentin, the tubules abruptly change direction although their number is approximately the same.
65. B – When the cusps of the tooth emerge from the gingiva, the reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the gingival epithelium and, together with the primary cuticle or last cell layer of enamel, forms the epithelial attachment. The reduced enamel epithelium is tbe name for the combination of ameloblasts, stellate reticulum and outer enamel epithelium which remain after tooth formation is complete.
66. B
67. B
68. C – Cleft lip is caused by the failure of the maxillary processes to fuse with the medial nasal swellings. A – gives to DiGeorge Syndrome, B – associated with mandibulofacial dysostosis, D – cleft palate.
69. A – Solid (multicystic) form requires surgical excision since it has a tendency to recur when treat with enucleation alone. Resection should be reserved for larger lesions. Unicystic lesions usually require only enucleation since the risk or recurrence is lower (10% recurrence rate after enucleation)—they should not be over-treated.
70. C

SET 3

1. D (RESTO)
2. A (RESTO) – Ideally, isolation is brought about by the use of rubber dam. Secondly, we can used cotton rolls, absorbent wafers and suction devices.
3. A (PH)
4. B  (COMMDENT) – Specificity measures the proportion of those without disease who are correctly identified by a negative test.
5. B (RESTO)
6. D (COMMDENT)
7. C (RESTO)
8. C (RESTO)
9. D (PH) – The correct answer is CEA Winslow
10. A (RESTO)
11. C (RESTO)
12. A (COMMDENT)
13. C (RESTO)
14. C (RESTO)
15. C (RESTO) – The nib is that part of non-cutting instruments that corresponds to the blade and is the working end of the instrument.
16. C (RESTO) – The term “shoeing” refers to minimal or partial coverage of the cusp by means of a finishing bevel on the crest of the cusp. Except for situations demanding a minimal display of gold (i.e. facial cusps of maxillary molars and premolars), capping or complete coverage of cusp is always preferred over shoeing.
17. B (RESTO)
18. B (COMMDENT)
19. A (COMMDENT)
20. D (RESTO) – The surface pertains to the root surface of the tooth which is made up of cementum. Cementum is not etched and a cavity in that area would mean that the tooth cannot be restored by conventional means.
21. A (PH)
22. B (PH)
23. C (RESTO)
24. C (RESTO)
25. C (RESTO)
26. B (COMMDENT) – Once an individual has dental caries or has had it, the examiner will discover it either as an active lesion or an extracted tooth or a filling that was placed after caries removal.
27. C (COMMDENT)
28. B (RESTO)
29. D (RESTO)
30. D (RESTO) – IRM is zinc oxide eugenol with PMMA beads added. The eugenol component of IRM will interfere with the setting of the composite filling material.
31. A (RESTO) – The solvent in the varnish (usually ether or chloroform) may react with and soften the resin.
32. C (RESTO)
33. A (COMMDENT)
34. D (COMMDENT)
35. C (RESTO) – By this time, the amalgam restoration would have achieved sufficient strength to support firm burnishing pressure.
36. B (RESTO)
37. B (RESTO) – Solution liners are 2 – 5 microns thick.
38. C (RESTO)
39. B (PH)
40. D (RESTO) – Pulpo-axial line angles in Class II cavity preparations should be beveled to minimize stress concentration in the restoration.
41. C (PH)
42. C (RESTO)
43. B (RESTO)
44. A (COMMDENT)
45. A (COMMDENT)
46. C (PH)
47. C (RESTO)
48. C (PH)
49. A (PH)
50. C (PH)
51. C (RESTO)
52. A (COMMDENT) – Irreversible indices are Dental Epidemiologic Indices that quantify irreversible conditions. Examples are: DMFT (Decayed, missing or filled teeth), DMFS (Decayed, missing or filled surfaces), DEFT (Decayed, extracted or filled teeth) and DEFS (Decayed, extracted or filled surfaces). (First Aid for the NBDE Part 2 & Dental Secrets 3^rd ed.)
53. C (RESTO)
54. B (PH)
55. D (RESTO) – The force varies inversely with the area of the condenser face.
56. C (RESTO) – B is for composite polishing
57. C (RESTO) – This is a phenomenon that can occur around restorations due to shrinkage or poor placement technique, whereby oral fluids seep down the microscopic gaps present and allow caries to develop. The other options are fictitious J
58. B (PH)
59. B (RESTO)
60. C (PH) – The results of DMFT index yield a group’s caries susceptibility. (Dental Decks for Public Health 2001)
61. C (PH)
62. D (RESTO) – The rake angle is the angle made between the rake face and the line connecting the edge of the axis of the bur.
63. C (COMMDENT)
64. D (RESTO)
65. B (COMMDENT) – Take note of the term “subtropical climate,” this is according to the National Oral Health Survey 2006
66. A (RESTO)
67. B (RESTO)
68. C (RESTO)
69. A (RESTO)
70. A (RESTO)

SET 4

1. D
2. A – Stiffness in dental materials is aka modulus of elasticity. (Sturdevant)
3. B
4. A
5. D – Dicor is a glass-ceramic material from Denstply.Dicor restorations were made using lost-wax, centrifugal casting process. (Sturdevant)
6. C – one of the particles of composite
7. B
8. D
9. A – Possible causes of lisping with complete dentures: 1) too much horizontal overlap, 2) arch form too broad, 3) anterior teeth placed too far labially, 4) palatal contour too constricted, 5) broadened & thickened contour for tongue contact
10. B
11. C
12. C – Other causes: overclosure (excessive interocclusal distance), posterior denture teeth set too far buccally or lingually or distally)
13. D
14. B – A v-shaped palate does not offer satisfactory resistance to vertical force.
15. B – There has to be contact between the minor connector and the DL line angle of the mesial abutment as well as on the ML line angle of the distal abutment to prevent food impaction.
16. B – one needs to do periodontal probing & radiographs to assess this.
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. A – on the other hand, C (zinc polycarboxylate) is the most soluble cement
24. D
25. D – Take note of the word “theoretically” which would explain why chamfer is not the answer. A feather edge margin would be best to allow burnishing and adaptation of gold to the tooth. However, in practice, it is hard to read this kind of finish line in the cast so a chamfer is preferred. (Dental Secrets 2^nd ed., Dental Decks for Prosthodontics 2001)
26. B – Type I – temporary cement, Type III – temporary filling material and insulating base (aka reinforced ZOE), Type IV – cavity liner.
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. C
37. D – A stress that tends to resist a twisting motion or sliding of one portion of a body over another is known as a shear stress which results from the forces that act parallel to the surface of the objects
38. A
39. C – The casting contains unavoidable porosities but when it’s drawsn into a wire, these porosities collapse and disappear
40. D
41. B – As the denture base moves upward, the most anterior rest resists downward movement and this increases the effectiveness of the direct retainer
42. C
43. B
44. D – Type I – impression plaster, Type II – model plater, Type III – dental stone, Type V – High-strength and high expansion dental stone
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. B
49. C
50. D
51. A – In contrast, B (impression compound) is an inelastic impression material.
52. D
53. A
54. D – Let’s negate the options one by one: A is wrong since the facebow record orients the maxilla to the transverse axis of the mandible in three dimensions & allows the transfer of this orientation to the articulator. B is wrong since the mandibular cast is mounted based on correct centric relation. Maxillary cast with its occlusion rim should be mounted first then the mandibular occlusion rim is luted to the maxillary occlusion rim in its correct position. After which, the mandibular cast is luted to the mandibular record base. C is wrong since the reference of VDO in edentulous patients would be the physiologic rest position.
55. B
56. D
57. A
58. C
59. B
60. A – While the palatal rugae serves as secondary support area of the maxillary complete denture
61. C
62. B
63. C
64. A – aka opening and closing axis point
65. D
66. C
67. A
68. A – 20 – 30 psi air pressure is needed during processing to eliminated porosities. Porosities also occur if the packing and processing of the powder and liquid resin is too plastic (stringy or sandy).C – would cause gas bubbles to be trapped within the denture material
69. B
70. D

SET 5

1. C – Other signs & symptoms of a mandibular body or angle fracture include: 1) lower lip numbness, 2) pain, mobility, or bleeding at the fracture site.
2. C – During cyanosis, tissues are uncharacteristically low on oxygen, and therefore tissues that would normally be filled with bright oxygenated blood are instead filled with darker, deoxygenated blood. Not to be confused with pallor which is associated with anemic patients. D – particularly with 2ndary polycythemia where pxs experience hypoxia.
3. A – In order of frequency: angle – condylar neck – symphysis – body – ramus – coronoid process
4. D
5. B – keyword is “ground glass”
6. A
7. A – FYI, Hallermann-Streuff is associated with the presence of supernumerary teeth
8. C
9. D – The key here is to note that the patient is healthy. So the first thing you suspect is that the patient had a vasovagal syncope episode. Syncope is the most common emergency seen after the use of local anesthesia. D – patient who had a vasovagal syncope episode should be placed in a fully supine position (legs should be elevated above the level of the heart (Trendelenburg position) and place a cool, moist towel on the head. Additional treatment may be necessary based on symptoms
10. B
11. B
12. A – Resorbable sutures like plain and chromic catgut evoke an intense inflammatory reaction. This is the reason why these sutures are not used for suturing the surface of a skin wound. Among resorbable sutures, plain catgut has the most severe tissue reactivity.
13. D
14. C
15. C – In addition, it is best that the dentist stands in front of and to the side of the patient for maximum visibility and leverage when extracting maxillary teeth
16. D – aka Human herpesvirus 8
17. C
18. C – Dead space is any area in the wound that remains devoid of tissue after closure. It usually fills with blood which creates a hematoma with a high chance of getting infection
19. D
20. D
21. D
22. D – Urinalysis is also included in the routine tests.
23. D
24. A
25. B – Stridor is aka crowing sounds, a sign of respiratory obstruction. A – pupil dilatation
26. C
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. A – This lesion rarely cause discomfort to the patient and has no tendency to progress so no treatment is needed.
31. C
32. A
33. D – Its function is to support the emulsion
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. D
39. B
40. B – At this time, the bone is more flexible and the roots are not formed well enough to develop curves and undercuts. A – there’s a greater chance for abnormal root morphology which complicates extraction and get a higher chance for fractures. D – root development is insufficient so it’s harder to remove the tooth which has a tendency to roll inside the socket.
41. A – In order of difficulty, least to most: (mandibular third molars) mesioangular  – horizontal – vertical – distoangular. (maxillary third molar) distoangular – vertical – horizontal – mesioangular
42. B – not all fractures in the orbital area can be described in these terms
43. D
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. B
48. B – Bitot’s spots are associated with vitamin A deficiency. See #52
49. B
50. B
51. C – or 12 breaths per minute
52. A
53. B – FYI, For children: 1 breath every 4 seconds. For infants: 1 breath every 3 seconds
54. B
55. C
56. D
57. D
58. D
59. B – argyria is caused by silver poisoning
60. D – This suture pattern offers strength and stability since each suture is independent to one another
61. D – Take note that the question is asking for an “alternative” –there is no other solution acceptable for biopsy but 10% formalin
62. B
63. D
64. B
65. D
66. A – All double and triple-rooted teeth cannot be rotated and must be luxated in the buccal and lingual directions. Mesial-distal motion is normally ruled out because of the existence of adjacent teeth
67. A – This type of cyst develops in the midline of anterior maxilla just posterior to the upper central incisors.
68. B – Osteomyelitis radographically present as ragged, patchy or meth-eaten areas of radiolucency—the outline of the area of destruction is irregular and poorly defined
69. D – A – slowest. No films are sold in speed groups A, B & C. E films – Ektaspeed, F films – Insight (Kodak)
70. C